1. Which element normally forms 3 bonds?
a. oxygen
b. bromine
c. nitrogen
d. carbon

2. Which of these properties is characteristic of organic compounds?
a. bonding that is mostly ionic
b. a melting point above 300 C
c. generally slow reactions
d. insolubility in organic solvents

3. Hydrocarbons that contain at least one triple bond are called
a. aromatic
b. alkanes
c. alkenes
d. alkynes

4. The compound CH₃(CH )₅ CH₃ is called
a. n -hexane
b. isohexane
c. n -heptane
d. n -octane

5. In propane the carbon in position 2 is
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

6. Among these compounds, which are isomers?
1. CH₃ CH₂ -O-CH₃
2. CH₃ CH₂ -O-CH₂ CH₃
3. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ OH
4. CH₂= CH-O-CH₃
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 4

7. In naming alkyl halides containing four different halogens, which
prefix is cited first?
a. fluoro
b. chloro
c. bromo
d. iodo

8. In which of these solvents are alkanes least soluble?
a. benzene
b. chloroform
c. water
d. dimethyl ether

9. The combustion of one mole of cyclohexane, C₆ H₁₄ , produces how many
moles of CO₂ ?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 12
d. 8

10. In 2-butanol the CH₃ CH₂ CHCH₃ part of the molecule
a. is the functional group
b. is the alcohol group
c. is the alkyl group
d. contains only primary carbons

11. What functional groups are present in CH₃ -C= CH-CH₂ -OH?
a. alcohol and alkene
b. ketone and alkene
c. aldehyde and ketone
d. alcohol and alkyne

12. The most stable shape of the cyclohexane ring resembles a
a. chair
b. table
c. boat
d. flat plane

13. If you put a few drops of hexane on your finger and then wipe it off,
you will feel the skin dry up. This happens because the hexane
a. is poisonous
b. protects the skin
c. dissolves the natural skin oils
d. extracts the water from the skin

14. Which statement is incorrect ?
a. the accumulation of CO₂ in the atmosphere may cause the greenhouse
effect
b. CO₂ in the air reflects back the earth's infrared radiation
c. the amount of CO₂ in our atmosphere is gradually increasing
d. CO₂ , once formed, remains in the atmosphere forever

15. CH₃ -CH= CH-CH= CH-CH= CH-CH₃ is called
a. 2,4,6-octene
b. 2,4,6-octatriene
c. 1,3,5-octadiene
d. 3,5,7-octatriene

16. Which of the following alkenes shows cis-trans isomerism?
a. 1,1-dibromobutene
b. 1-pentene
c. 2-methyl-2-octene
d. 3-octene

17. When HCl is added to 1-methylcyclohexene the principal reaction
product is
a. 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane
b. 1-chloro-2-methylcyclohexane
c. 1-chloro-2-methylcyclohexene
d. 3-chloro-2-methylcyclohexene

18. In the addition of HX to a double bond, the hydrogen goes to the
carbon that already has more hydrogens. This is a statement of
a. the double bond rule
b. LeChatelier's principle
c. Markovnikov's rule
d. the rule of "less is better"

19. The addition polymer -CF₂ -CF₂ -CF₂ -CF₂ - is called
a. polystyrene
b. polypropylene
c. Teflon
d. polyfluorobenzene

20. The polymer polyvinyl chloride is made by polymerizing which monomer?
a. CH₂ -CH Cl
b. CH₂ =CHCl
c. CHCl= CHCl
d. CH=CCl

21. The compound CH= C C-CH₂ -CH₂ Cl is called
a. 1-chloro-4-pentyne
b. 5-chloro-2-pentyne
c. 5-chloro-2-pentene
d. 1-chloro-3-pentyne

22. An example of an important triol is
a. glycerol
b. ethylene glycol
c. methyl alcohol
d. isopropyl alcohol

23. In the conversion of wine to vinegar
a. ethyl alcohol is oxidized to acetic acid
b. ethyl alcohol is reduced to acetic acid
c. ethyl alcohol is oxidized to formic acid
d. methyl alcohol is reduced to formic acid

24. Which compound is used as an antifreeze in automobiles?
a. isopropyl alcohol
b. glycerol
c. ethanol
d. ethylene glycol

25. The most important chemical property of phenols is
a. they are weak bases
b. they can be oxidized to ketones
c. they are weak acids
d. they are strong acids

26. Which of these is the least soluble in water?
a. CH₃ OH
b. CH₃ CH₂ OH
c. CH₃ (CH₂ )₅ CH₂ OH
d. HOCH₂ (CH₂ )₅ CH₂ OH

27. Which of these has the lowest boiling point?
a. CH₃ -O-(CH₂ )₃2 CH₃
b. CH₃ (CH₂ ) ₂CH₂ OH
c. phenol
d. HO-CH₂ CH₂ -OH

28. From a knowledge of which compounds form hydrogen bonds, we can
conclude, comparing compounds of the same molecular weight, that
a. alcohols are more soluble in water than ethers
b. alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers
c. alkyl chlorides have higher boiling points than alcohols
d. ethers have lower boiling points than alkanes

29. Which group of compounds is noted for their foul odors?
a. phenols
b. ethers
c. alcohols
d. thiols

30. CFCs, such as Freon-12, formerly used in refrigerators and aerosol
sprays, have been replaced by international agreement. This was done
because CFCs
a. destroy the protective ozone layer in the upper atmosphere
b. are poisonous
c. contain fluorine, which when released is poisonous
d. The statement is false. CFCs are still used in aerosol sprays.

31. The active ingredient in marijuana is
a. diethyl ether
b. ethanol
c. phenol
d. tetrahydrocannabinol

32. The IUPAC name for acetone is
a. propanal
b. ethanal
c. butanone
d. propanone

33. An aldehyde can form a hydrogen bond with
a. an alcohol
b. a ketone
c. an ether
d. another aldehyde

34. When 2-methyl-2-propanol is treated with a mild oxidizing agent the
oxidation product is
a. an aldehyde
b. a ketone
c. an ether
d. there is no reaction

35. In Benedict's test
a. an aldehyde is oxidized
b. a silver mirror forms
c. the copper(II) ion is oxidized
d. all of these

36. A hemiacetal has which of these groups on the same carbon?
a. OH, OR, H, and R
b. two ORs, H, and R
c. two OHs and two Rs
d. two ORs and two Rs

37. This compound CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ COOH is called
a. propionic acid
b. palmitic acid
c. valeric acid
d. butyric acid

38. Which statement is true? Carboxylic acids
a. have higher boiling points than alcohols or aldehydes of the same
molecular weight
b. are all soluble in water
c. have weaker hydrogen bonds than alcohols
d. cannot form hydrogen bonds with another carboxylic acid

39. This compound CH₃ CH₂ COO K is called potassium
a. propionate
b. benzoate
c. acetate
d. butyrate

40. Which of these compounds is most soluble in water?
a. CH₃ CH₂ CH CH₂ CH₂ COOH
b. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ COO Na +
c. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ COOH
d. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ OH

41. The base-catalyzed hydrolysis of carboxylic esters is called
a. dehydration
b. esterification
c. saponification
d. acidification

42. The two monomers used to manufacture Dacron are
a. ethylene glycol and succinic acid
b. ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
c. glycerol and terephthalic acid
d. glycerol and succinic acid

43. An example of a primary amine is
a. CH₃ -NH-CH₂ CH₃
b. (CH ) NH
c. CH₃ CH₂ NH
d. (CH₃ ) N

44. Which of these is diethylamine?
a. CH₃ CH₂ NH
b. CH₃CH₂ NHCH₂ CH₃
c. NH₂ CH₂ CH₂ NHCH₂ CH₂ NH₂
d. NH₂ CH₂ CH₂ NH₂

45. The boiling point of ethylamine is higher than that of propane but
lower than that of 1-propanol. This means that
a. a molecule of ethylamine cannot form a hydrogen bond with another
molecule of itself
b. hydrogen bonds between two amino groups are weaker than those
between two alcohol groups
c. the intermolecular attraction between two amine molecules is merely
dipole-dipole interaction
d. the intermolecular interaction between two amines is of an ionic
nature

46. Which of these is most soluble in water?
a. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ NHCH₃
b. CH CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ NH₂
c. (CH₃ CH₂ )₃ N
d. NH₂ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ NH₂

47. The product formed when HCl reacts with (CH ) NH is
a. CH₃ CH₂ NH₂ Cl
b. CH₃ NH₂ Cl
c. (CH₃ )₂ NH₂ Cl
d. (CH₃ )₂ N Cl

48. Amides are
a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. some are basic, some neutral

49. The designation HCl as in Neo-Synephrine HCl on the label of a
decongestant drug means the drug
a. contains hydrochloric acid
b. is an amine and is present in the form of its salt
c. was extracted from a plant using HCl
d. is not pure

50. Nylon belongs to a class of polymers known as
a. polyamides
b. polyesters
c. polystyrenes
d. polyethylenes

51. A dextrorotatory substance
a. rotates unpolarized light
b. is given the symbol (-)
c. rotates the plane of polarized light clockwise
d. rotates the plane of polarized light counterclockwise

52. A mixture of equal amounts of a pair of enantiomers is called
a. an anomer
b. a diastereomer
c. a racemic mixture
d. a chiral mixture

53. In the Fischer projection the two bonds represented by horizontal lines
a. come out at you from the plane of the paper
b. go behind the plane of the paper
c. are in the plane of the paper
d. are sometimes in the plane and sometimes not

54. Which statement is true? Chiral molecules
a. have cis and trans isomers
b. contain only chiral carbon atoms
c. do not rotate the plane of polarized light
d. cannot be superimposed on their mirror images

55. All properties of a pair of enantiomers are identical except
1. they have different specific heats
2. they rotate the plane of polarized light by different amounts
3. they rotate the plane of polarized light in different directions
4. they react at different rates with chiral compounds
5. they react at different rates with all compounds, chiral and
nonchiral
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 5

56. Which carbon atom in beta - D -glucose is the hemiacetal carbon?
a. C-1
b. C-4
c. C-5
d. C-6

57. beta - D -glucose and alpha - D -glucose are
a. enantiomers
b. anomers
c. disaccharides
d. a racemic mixture

58. An example of a nonreducing sugar is
a. lactose
b. glucose
c. fructose
d. sucrose

59. The complete hydrolysis of glycogen yields only
a. maltose
b. fructose
c. glucose
d. ribose

60. Which polysaccharide has only alpha (1- 4) glycosidic linkages?
a. cellulose
b. glycogen
c. amylose
d. amylopectin

61. The water-repellent property of lipids is expressed by the word
a. hydrophilic
b. hydrophobic
c. hydraulic
d. hydroponic

62. In unsaturated fatty acids the double bonds are
a. all cis
b. all trans
c. both cis and trans
d. cis-trans isomerism does not apply

63. Heating a fat with water and which of these reagents will make a soap?
a. NaOH
b. HCl
c. HNO
d. CaCl

64. When the alcohol sphingosine is linked to a fatty acid by an amide
linkage, the combination is called
a. ceramide
b. cerebroside
c. ganglioside
d. myelin

65. All steroids contain at least how many rings?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

66. Which hormone is the precursor of the other sex hormones as well as of
the adrenocorticoid hormones?
a. testosterone
b. progesterone
c. estradiol
d. cortisol

67. RU486 is a drug used to
a. decrease prostaglandin levels in blood
b. decrease cholesterol levels in blood
c. decrease sugar levels in blood
d. prevent implantation of a fertilized ovum

68. Bile salts are
a. sex hormones
b. emulsifying agents
c. membrane components
d. anti-inflammatory

69. The common precursor of prostaglandins and leukotrienes is
a. cholesterol
b. oleic acid
c. arachidonic acid
d. progesterone

70. Which part of the soap molecules penetrates the greasy dirt particles?
a. the hydrophobic tail
b. the hydrophilic head
c. the carboxylate ion
d. the sodium ion

71. Multiple scleroses is a disease caused by the
a. demyelination of nerve cells
b. deposits of cholesterol in the brain
c. depletion of phosphoglycerides in the brain
d. improper accumulation of glycolipids in the brain

72. All amino acids found in proteins are L -amino acids except
a. glutamic acid
b. glutamine
c. serine
d. glycine

73. Which of these is a basic amino acid?
a. glycine
b. lysine
c. cysteine
d. valine

74. The pH at which the positive and negative charges of an amino acid
balance each other is called the
a. isotonic point
b. isobaric point
c. isosbestic point
d. isoelectric point

75. The sequence of the amino acids in a protein is which kind of
structure?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

76. Secondary structures of proteins are held together by hydrogen bonding
between the
a. C= O and N-H of a backbone
b. C= O of a backbone and the N-H of a side chain
c. two N-H groups of a backbone
d. C= O of a side chain and the N-H of a backbone

77. Which structure is not affected by the denaturation of a protein?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

78. The difference between normal and sickle cell hemoglobin is in which
structure?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

79. Curly hairs are the result of cross-linking of keratins by
a. disulfide linkages
b. salt bridges
c. hydrogen bonds
d. hydrophobic interactions

80. The protein portion of an enzyme is called
a. a cofactor
b. a coenzyme
c. an apoenzyme
d. a proenzyme

81. An enzyme that is activated when a portion of the chain is removed is
called
a. an inhibitor
b. a zymogen
c. an activator
d. none of these

82. An explanation for the mechanism of competitive inhibition of an
enzyme is that
a. both the substrate and the inhibitor fit into the active site
b. only the inhibitor fits into the active site
c. the substrate fits into the active site even though the inhibitor
changes the shape of the enzyme by attachment to another site
d. only the substrate fits into the active site

83. The active site of pyruvate kinase contains two cofactors, K⁺ and Mg²⁺ , which help to
a. transfer carboxyl groups from phosphoenolpyruvate
b. cleave ATP
c. decarboxylate the pyruvate
d. anchor the negatively charged sites of the substrate

84. Sulfa drugs act as competitive inhibitors of bacterial enzymes that
need the coenzyme
a. vitamin A
b. folic acid
c. vitamin B
d. vitamin C

85. What is the mode of the antibacterial action of penicillin?
a. it inhibits the transpeptidase that makes bacterial cell walls rigid
b. it kills all bacteria that do not need a cell wall
c. it prevents folic acid synthesis by bacteria
d. it inhibits protein synthesis by bacteria

86. The process of building up molecules in the body is called
a. metabolism
b. anabolism
c. catabolism
d. all of these

87. In the molecule ATP, the A stands for
a. alanine
b. adenine
c. adenosine
d. acetic acid

88. All of these statements are true except
a. the citric acid cycle is also called the Krebs cycle
b. when NAD is reduced, it is converted to NADH
c. when ADP is converted to ATP energy is given off
d. the common catalytic pathway takes place in the mitochondria

89. The C₂ fragment that enters the citric acid cycle is
a. fumarate
b. acetyl CoA
c. oxaloacetate
d. succinate

90. How many CO₂ molecules are produced in one full turn of the citric
acid cycle?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. it depends on which compound enters the cycle

91. Cytochrome b is
a. a proton translocating enzyme
b. located in the cytoplasm
c. part of the citric acid cycle
d. part of the electron transport system

92. Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of
a. monosaccharides
b. glycogen
c. amylose
d. cellulose

93. The metabolic pathway in which glucose is converted to lactic acid is
called
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycolysis
c. transamination
d. glycogenolysis

94. The urea cycle is part of the catabolism of
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. amino acids
d. glycerol

95. The amino acid that is not metabolized in the disease called PKU is
a. leucine
b. proline
c. phenylalanine
d. glycine

96. Biosynthetic processes, in general,
a. produce ATP
b. use up ATP
c. produce GTP instead of ATP
d. produce acetyl CoA instead of ATP

97. Photosynthesis is a process that
a. takes place in animal tissues only
b. synthesizes fatty acids with the aid of sunlight
c. uses up oxygen and produces carbon dioxide
d. produces carbohydrates from CO and H O

98. In gluconeogenesis
a. glucose is synthesized from pyruvate
b. glucose is broken down into two C fragments
c. glucose is built into glygogen
d. glucose is converted to galactose

99. In an animal cell hereditary information is located in the
a. cytosol
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
d. cell membranes

100. DNA is a polymer of
a. nucleosides
b. nucleotides
c. bases
d. deoxyribose

101. This formula represents the pairing of which bases?
a. G-C
b. A-C
c. A-T
d. G-T

102. All of these statements describe the differences between DNA and RNA
except
a. DNA is double stranded; RNA is single stranded
b. DNA has thymine; RNA has uracil
c. DNA has deoxyribose; RNA has ribose
d. DNA has one phosphate for each sugar; RNA has two phosphates for
each sugar.

103. The DNA replication process is called
a. conservative
b. semiconservative
c. liberal
d. both b and c

104. Ribosomes are small spherical bodies
a. made of RNA and proteins
b. residing in the nucleus of a cell
c. made of RNA only
d. made of DNA and RNA

105. The statement "The information contained in DNA is transferred to RNA
and then from RNA to the structure of proteins" is called the
a. one gene, one enzyme hypothesis
b. genetic code
c. the central dogma of molecular biology
d. Chargaff rule

106. A codon is
a. a triplet of bases on mRNA
b. a triplet of bases on tRNA
c. a triplet of bases on DNA
d. a triplet of amino acids in the ribosome

107. When the methionine tRNA binds to its codon to the mRNA and the mRNA
is attached only to the 40S ribosome, the process is called
a. initiation
b. elongation
c. termination
d. activation

108. In the elongation step of protein synthesis, the binding of tRNA takes
place on
a. the DNA molecule
b. the P-site of the 60S ribosome
c. the 40S ribosome
d. the A-site of the 60S ribosome

109. Histones are
a. the noncoding sequences of DNA
b. the coding sequences of DNA
c. the spliced exons in the mature mRNA
d. the basic proteins in the nucleosomes

110. When the blood reaches which of these pH values would a patient be
said to have the condition called alkalosis?
a. 6.4
b. 7.2
c. 7.42
d. 7.8

ANSWER KEY FOR TEST- A:\102FINAL

1. c	2. c	3. d	4. c	5. b
6. a	7. c	8. c	9. b	10. c
11. a	12. a	13. c	14. d	15. b
16. d	17. a	18. c	19. c	20. b
21. b	22. a	23. a	24. d	25. c
26. c	27. a	28. b	29. d	30. a
31. d	32. d	33. a	34. d	35. a
36. a	37. d	38. a	39. a	40. b
41. c	42. b	43. c	44. b	45. b
46. d	47. c	48. c	49. b	50. a
51. c	52. c	53. a	54. d	55. c
56. a	57. b	58. d	59. c	60. a
61. b	62. a	63. a	64. a	65. d
66. b	67. d	68. b	69. c	70. a
71. a	72. d	73. b	74. d	75. a
76. a	77. a	78. a	79. a	80. c
81. b	82. a	83. d	84. b	85. a
86. b	87. c	88. c	89. b	90. b
91. d	92. b	93. b	94. c	95. c
96. b	97. d	98. a	99. c	100. b
101. c	102. d	103. b	104. a	105. c
106. a	107. a	108. d	109. d	110. d